You are here: Home: Meet The Professors Vol. 3 Issue 6 2005: Case 4   
             
            
  
Edited excerpts from the discussion: 
DR WEINER:  This 38-year-old woman
  presented in January 2004 with a 1.5-centimeter,
  poorly differentiated, ER-positive,
  PR-negative, HER2-negative, intraductal
  breast cancer. Vascular invasion was noted,
  and four lymph nodes were positive. 
  She was initially treated with dose-dense
  AC followed by paclitaxel and radiation
  therapy to the left breast and axilla. She
  was prescribed tamoxifen, 20 milligrams
  daily. Her last menstrual period was at the
  onset of chemotherapy. 
  DR LOVE: Kevin, this patient’s last
  menstrual period was less than a year ago
  and she’s on tamoxifen. Would it be appropriate
  to switch her to an aromatase inhibitor? 
  DR FOX:  I think it would be appropriate
  to switch a patient from tamoxifen to
  an aromatase inhibitor after two years of
  therapy. However, that requires that the
  patient be in true menopause, which brings
  up a very important issue in this case: When
  can you be assured that this patient is truly
  in menopause? I think it’s safe to say that,
  for the first time this year, we were given
  some information that gives us a clue as to
  the natural history of chemotherapy-induced
  amenorrhea and its permanence, or lack of
  permanence, in women. I had never seen
  much on this issue before. 
  The late Dr Jeanne Petrek from Memorial was
  one of the organizers of a multi-institutional
  study, wherein newly diagnosed patients
  were recruited during or shortly after they
  completed adjuvant therapy. All that the
  study required was menstrual histories from
  these patients, essentially on a daily basis,
  for a three-year period. The data presented
  at ASCO (Petrek 2005) gave us an idea about
  how often women became amenorrheic and
  how often their menstrual periods resumed.
  Without belaboring the details, the most
  compelling observation was that if you
  looked at the percentage of patients after
  chemotherapy who were in a state of amenorrhea,
  the data were convincing that no
  reversibility remained after the second year. 
  On the other hand, quite a bit of reversibility
  was evident after the first year, especially
  in women under the age of 40. The
  point being that the premature prescription
  of an aromatase inhibitor might result in a
  therapeutic failure if the patient still has
  ovarian function. 
  What we’ve done, as an unofficial policy,
  is that if we need to confirm the patient’s
  menstrual status, we check their estradiol
  and FSH levels, for all its faults. We haven’t
  been burned thus far. 
  DR LOVE: Eric, this is a 38-year-old woman
  with four positive nodes. We know that
  in the postmenopausal woman, aromatase
  inhibitors reduce recurrence risk more than
  tamoxifen. What are your thoughts on how
  best to treat this perimenopausal patient? 
  DR WINER:  The truth is, in a woman who is
  premenopausal at diagnosis, we don’t know
  that any aromatase inhibitor used in the
  first five years is better than tamoxifen. No
  such patients were included in the trials,
  other than the MA17 trial, which involved
  treatment after five years of tamoxifen. If
  you think about it, a premenopausal woman
  experiences ovarian suppression from
  chemotherapy, and if she is on tamoxifen
  she has received essentially two hormonal
  therapies, one of which is substantially lowering her estrogen levels. 
  It’s an important and unanswered question
  as to whether, in a premenopausal woman,
  ovarian suppression and an aromatase inhibitor
  are better than ovarian suppression with
  tamoxifen. That is the question being asked
  in the TEXT and SOFT trials, and I could
  imagine the results going either way —
  showing the aromatase inhibitor combination
  to be superior or inferior to the tamoxifen
  combination (4.1). 
  DR LOVE: Do you think that ovarian
  ablation and tamoxifen will be better
  than tamoxifen? 
  DR WINER:  I suspect that it may be, but
  that wouldn’t keep me from enrolling
  someone in the study, because I’m not
  sufficiently convinced. The decision to add
  ovarian suppression and tamoxifen to treat
  a woman who’s still premenopausal after
  chemotherapy is a tough decision outside
  of a trial. 
  I do it occasionally, and sufficient data
  exist to make me comfortable with that,
  but at the same time, I wouldn’t say it’s the
  standard. However, I would be worried that
  this woman might start cycling again if you
  switch her too soon, and we don’t know that
  switching at any point in time will improve
  her outcome. 
  DR LOVE: If she came to see you in another
  couple of years and had now not menstruated
  for three years, would you switch her
  then? 
  DR WINER:  I’m still a little nervous in a
  38-year-old woman. If she were 48, had
  received AC followed by T and had not
  menstruated for three years, I’d be pretty
  comfortable. Although I realize those
  patients weren’t included in IES or the
  ABCSG ARNO study, I tend to switch those
  patients (Coombes 2004; Jakesz 2005). On
  the other hand, if this 38-year-old patient
  were menopausal at the four- to five-year
  point, I would switch to an AI then or
  perhaps sooner if we have additional data
  before then. 
  DR LOVE: Eric, our Patterns of Care study
  has shown us that the most common chemotherapy
  right now in the United States for a
  patient like this is dose-dense AC followed
  by T, exactly what she received. What are
  reasonable alternatives for a patient like
  this? 
  DR WINER:  I think any of the so-called
  third-generation regimens are reasonable.
  I can’t tell you that one is better than the
  other, because they haven’t been compared
  to each other. The two main regimens are
  AC followed by paclitaxel given in a dosedense
  fashion, based on the results of the
  CALGB Intergroup study (Citron 2003), or
  TAC (Martin 2005). I think whatever you’re
  most comfortable using as a third-generation regimen is the regimen that you should
  use (4.2). 
 
 
  DR LOVE: What about AC followed by
  docetaxel? Our Patterns of Care studies show
  that is the second most common regimen
  used in a case like this. 
  DR WINER:  Why give something that hasn’t
  been shown to be effective, although there’s
  every reason to think that it will be? Why
  not give the regimen as it was given in
  a trial? Now, if you have a patient who’s
  getting AC followed by paclitaxel and she’s
  having severe neuropathy, it’s reasonable to
  use docetaxel if you want to continue the
  taxane and you think it may be better tolerated
  from a neuropathy standpoint. 
  DR LOVE: Kevin, what regimen would you
  use in a patient like this? 
  DR FOX:  We participated in the CALGB-9741
  trial and became somewhat familiar with
  the dose-dense concept. When that trial
  was reported as a positive study, we began
  asking, “Why not give dose-dense therapy?”
  Gaining more experience with dose density
  after the sstudy, we saw no unique toxicities. 
  It was virtually always assured that patients
  could stay on schedule, which trimmed
  eight weeks off their course of therapy. Cost
  issues of growth factors notwithstanding,
  I still haven’t come up with a good reason
  not to do it, so it has been our standard
  approach outside of a clinical trial. 
 
 
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